I’m not sure. Certainly there is a problem with the mapping of votes to parliamentary seats. But it also makes clear that we are used to being ruled by a government elected by little more than a third of the electorate. I just thought it was particularly interesting considering the questions about how a Conservative government can have any legitimacy in Scotland when they only have a single MP here.

It is worth noting that the new coalition government gained 59.1% of the UK vote. When was the last time that a government in the UK had more than 50% of the vote?